In my estimation the KJV is perhaps the most helpful of all "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence" because it has the idea of man as the head, the leader, and the woman usurping him before she can take power. In other words she casts down the created order and sins to become the leader.
Here is the ESV "I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet." Okay, so that's not too bad either, but it opens the door a crack. She may not be over a man, but here it may imply that she can be over him so long as she doesn't say or do anything. The translators obviously tried to stand next to the Greek word αὐθεντέω means 'to exercise authority' and let the reader figure it out, which I'm all for.
Now here is the NIV2011 "I do not permit a woman to teach or to assume authority over a man; she must be quiet" Great, as a woman I can have power and use it so long as I don't take upon myself. I shant assume, but if handed authority I shant refuse.
There is something really ironic thing about that. NIV2011 is supposed to be a dynamic idea translation, for example they went through the New Testament and stripped out all the references to 'flesh' and translated them based on context. So for example in Romans 7 we have "nothing good lives in my flesh" becoming "nothing good lives in my sinful nature". Nothing harmful there per se.
Only the question is, why didn't they use their context clues, and dynamic equivalence to fix 2 Tim 2 :12 as well? How hard is it, if you are already doing it elsewhere? A kid could figure it out, v13 is the explanation for that rule: for Adam was first formed, then Eve. The reason lies in the created order- God wanted Adam to be the ruler and head, and Eve to be His beloved helper.
It cannot possibly be more clear then that. So why does NIV2011 decided to help us poor stupid readers out elsewhere but not here?
I don't know.
But it is ironic.
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